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In the picture below, in a), a body K1 is pivotably attached to a bearing. My question is about the torque that results from a force exerted onto a surface of the body K1.

A first force F1 applied orthogonally onto the surface should result in a torque M1 in clockwise direction.

Is it correct that a second force, F2, applied almost parallel to the surface will result in a torque M2 in counterclockwise direction?

My thoughts are, F2 is split into F2t and F2o (transversal and orthogonal components) by the surface of the body K1. To get a torque, F2o is multiplied by the lever b and F2t is multiplied by the lever a (M2 = F2t * a - F2o * b > 0). As a>b and F2t>F2o, the torque from the force F2 results in counterclockwise direction.

Applying these thought to the two bodies K1, K2 in b), a torque of M3 applied to the body K2 will result in a torque M4 in the body K1. (The bodies won't move because they are in each others movement path)

Is this correct or am I forgetting something? What is the job of friction in this case? From looking at b), K2 should push K1 away by applying a clockwise torque, but that is wrong then, right?

Suppose there is enough friction so that no slippage occurs.

In the picture below, in a), a body K1 is pivotably attached to a bearing. My question is about the torque that results from a force exerted onto a surface of the body K1.

A first force F1 applied orthogonally onto the surface should result in a torque M1 in clockwise direction.

Is it correct that a second force, F2, applied almost parallel to the surface will result in a torque M2 in counterclockwise direction?

My thoughts are, F2 is split into F2t and F2o (transversal and orthogonal components) by the surface of the body K1. To get a torque, F2o is multiplied by the lever b and F2t is multiplied by the lever a (M2 = F2t * a - F2o * b > 0). As a>b and F2t>F2o, the torque from the force F2 results in counterclockwise direction.

Applying these thought to the two bodies K1, K2 in b), a torque of M3 applied to the body K2 will result in a torque M4 in the body K1. (The bodies won't move because they are in each others movement path)

Is this correct or am I forgetting something? What is the job of friction in this case? From looking at b), K2 should push K1 away by applying a clockwise torque, but that is wrong then, right?

In the picture below, in a), a body K1 is pivotably attached to a bearing. My question is about the torque that results from a force exerted onto a surface of the body K1.

A first force F1 applied orthogonally onto the surface should result in a torque M1 in clockwise direction.

Is it correct that a second force, F2, applied almost parallel to the surface will result in a torque M2 in counterclockwise direction?

My thoughts are, F2 is split into F2t and F2o (transversal and orthogonal components) by the surface of the body K1. To get a torque, F2o is multiplied by the lever b and F2t is multiplied by the lever a (M2 = F2t * a - F2o * b > 0). As a>b and F2t>F2o, the torque from the force F2 results in counterclockwise direction.

Applying these thought to the two bodies K1, K2 in b), a torque of M3 applied to the body K2 will result in a torque M4 in the body K1. (The bodies won't move because they are in each others movement path)

Is this correct or am I forgetting something? What is the job of friction in this case? From looking at b), K2 should push K1 away by applying a clockwise torque, but that is wrong then, right?

Suppose there is enough friction so that no slippage occurs.

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Modulus
Modulus
  • 35
  • 5

How is torque transmitted between inclined surfaces?

In the picture below, in a), a body K1 is pivotably attached to a bearing. My question is about the torque that results from a force exerted onto a surface of the body K1.

A first force F1 applied orthogonally onto the surface should result in a torque M1 in clockwise direction.

Is it correct that a second force, F2, applied almost parallel to the surface will result in a torque M2 in counterclockwise direction?

My thoughts are, F2 is split into F2t and F2o (transversal and orthogonal components) by the surface of the body K1. To get a torque, F2o is multiplied by the lever b and F2t is multiplied by the lever a (M2 = F2t * a - F2o * b > 0). As a>b and F2t>F2o, the torque from the force F2 results in counterclockwise direction.

Applying these thought to the two bodies K1, K2 in b), a torque of M3 applied to the body K2 will result in a torque M4 in the body K1. (The bodies won't move because they are in each others movement path)

Is this correct or am I forgetting something? What is the job of friction in this case? From looking at b), K2 should push K1 away by applying a clockwise torque, but that is wrong then, right?