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Oct 8, 2020 at 16:08 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Oct 8, 2020 at 15:38 history suggested Urb CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 8, 2020 at 15:34 review Suggested edits
S Oct 8, 2020 at 15:38
Oct 8, 2020 at 15:32 vote accept Manas Dogra
Oct 8, 2020 at 15:25 answer added aitfel timeline score: 1
Oct 8, 2020 at 15:08 comment added jkb1603 Yes, $\gamma^{\mu} p^{\nu} = p^{\nu} \gamma^{\mu}$ for any $\mu, \nu \in \{0,1,2,3\}$, since $\gamma^{\mu}$ is a matrix and $p^{\nu}$ (I mean the components here, not the vector) is a number (therefore $p^{\nu}$ can be pulled out of the trace).
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:59 comment added Manas Dogra So, the $\gamma$ s and $p$ s commute?
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:47 comment added jkb1603 Yes. It is a four vector, but its components $p_0,p_1,p_2,p_3$ are numbers in the internal (four-dimensional) vector space in which the Dirac matrices act. The trace is to be taken with respect to this vector space.
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:45 comment added Manas Dogra Isn't $p_{\mu}$ a covariant 4-vector because it has one index $\mu$ attached to it?
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:43 comment added jkb1603 Recall that $\not{p} = p_{\mu} \gamma^{\mu}$ (with the implicit sum over $\mu$ of course). The factor $p_{\mu}$ can be pulled out of the trace, since it is just a number, and you can use the usual trace formulas (you will also need formulas for the contraction of gamma matrices).
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:38 comment added Manas Dogra Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/255243
Oct 8, 2020 at 14:38 history asked Manas Dogra CC BY-SA 4.0