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Grammar, fixed some errors in the question
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Brian
Brian
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Do Does momentum change when Kinetic energy changes?

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ , $P=mv$ thus there is a relation between them. I really cantcan't understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in an inelastic collision. I am only a high school passed student(ready for college). Should iI leave this question until iI learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem"  ? Because iI literally read most of the answers about these kindkinds of questions and spend almost half a day foron it, BUT iI do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question.? please help me..

Do momentum change when Kinetic energy changes?

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ , $P=mv$ thus there is a relation between them. I really cant understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in inelastic collision. I am only high school passed student(ready for college). Should i leave this question until i learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem"  ? Because i literally read most of the answers about these kind of questions and spend almost half day for it, BUT i do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question. please help me..

Does momentum change when Kinetic energy changes?

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ , $P=mv$ thus there is a relation between them. I really can't understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in an inelastic collision. I am only a high school passed student(ready for college). Should I leave this question until I learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem"? Because I literally read most of the answers about these kinds of questions and spend almost half a day on it, BUT I do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question? please help me.

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Thomas Fritsch
Thomas Fritsch
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Converted math to latex
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edit approved Oct 2, 2020 at 8:10
Koustubh Jain
edit approved Oct 2, 2020 at 8:10
Koustubh Jain
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K.E=1/2mv2$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ , P=mv$P=mv$ thus there is a relation between them. I really cant understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in inelastic collision. I am only high school passed student(ready for college). Should i leave this question until i learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem" ? Because i literally read most of the answers about these kind of questions and spend almost half day for it, BUT i do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question. please help me..

K.E=1/2mv2 , P=mv thus there is a relation between them. I really cant understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in inelastic collision. I am only high school passed student(ready for college). Should i leave this question until i learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem" ? Because i literally read most of the answers about these kind of questions and spend almost half day for it, BUT i do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question. please help me..

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ , $P=mv$ thus there is a relation between them. I really cant understand why there is no decrease in momentum when kinetic energy is decreased in inelastic collision. I am only high school passed student(ready for college). Should i leave this question until i learn "Lagrangian" and "Noether's Theorem" ? Because i literally read most of the answers about these kind of questions and spend almost half day for it, BUT i do not get it. Can anyone please answer this question. please help me..

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Angeline varghese
Angeline varghese
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