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Qmechanic ♦
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Chris ♦
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Lets say we have a frictionless and massless pulley with a massless string over it. There are two masses attached to it m1$m_1$ and m2$m_2$ where m2 >m1$m_2>m_1$.

So m2$m_2$ would an experience an acceleration down while m1$m_1$ experiences an acceleration up and massless string would also move accordingly.

However, if the net force on a massless string is always zero, it shouldn't experience any acceleration and stay at rest. But the string does move. How does it move?

Lets say we have a frictionless and massless pulley with a massless string over it. There are two masses attached to it m1 and m2 where m2 >m1.

So m2 would an experience an acceleration down while m1 experiences an acceleration up and massless string would also move accordingly.

However, if the net force on a massless string is always zero, it shouldn't experience any acceleration and stay at rest. But the string does move. How does it move?

Lets say we have a frictionless and massless pulley with a massless string over it. There are two masses attached to it $m_1$ and $m_2$ where $m_2>m_1$.

So $m_2$ would an experience an acceleration down while $m_1$ experiences an acceleration up and massless string would also move accordingly.

However, if the net force on a massless string is always zero, it shouldn't experience any acceleration and stay at rest. But the string does move. How does it move?

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Jacob Gonzalez
Jacob Gonzalez
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How can a massless string move if the net force on it is always zero?

Lets say we have a frictionless and massless pulley with a massless string over it. There are two masses attached to it m1 and m2 where m2 >m1.

So m2 would an experience an acceleration down while m1 experiences an acceleration up and massless string would also move accordingly.

However, if the net force on a massless string is always zero, it shouldn't experience any acceleration and stay at rest. But the string does move. How does it move?