I was told that
If net external moment of some forces is zero about a point, then the net external force passes through the point.
I know it's not true in general, what was the special condition imposed which I forgot to include to make it true? Also, is there anything close to the statement we can say ?
Some of my friends guess that if the additional condition that the net external force on the body is zero would be also imposed the statement might become true, while some say that the forces were meant to be co-planar. I do not understand why that would be true. It will be a great help if someone could provide some insight into what exactly is happening here.
Please ask for clarifications if something is not clear.