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Say we have equal masses $M_1$ and $M_2$, traveling at equal but opposite velocities, $v$ and $-v$. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at the same initial speeds.

But what if now we do the same but one velocity is $V$, other is $-2v$. Is the force from the above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, because the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by Newton's third law? Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds are essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking, is the magnitude of the force between the masses during a collision with speeds $V$ and $-2v$ the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with $v$ and $-v$? I feel they would be.

Say we have equal masses $M_1$ and $M_2$, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at the same initial speeds.

But what if now we do the same but one velocity is $V$, other is $-2v$. Is the force from the above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, because the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by Newton's third law? Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds are essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking, is the magnitude of the force between the masses during a collision with speeds $V$ and $-2v$ the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with $v$ and $-v$? I feel they would be.

Say we have equal masses $M_1$ and $M_2$, traveling at equal but opposite velocities, $v$ and $-v$. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at the same initial speeds.

But what if now we do the same but one velocity is $V$, other is $-2v$. Is the force from the above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, because the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by Newton's third law? Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds are essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking, is the magnitude of the force between the masses during a collision with speeds $V$ and $-2v$ the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with $v$ and $-v$? I feel they would be.

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Say we have equal masses M1$M_1$ and M2$M_2$, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at the same initial speeds.

But what if now we do the same but one velocity is V$V$, other is -2v$-2v$. Is the force from the above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, becuasebecause the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces havehave to be equal by N3l. JustNewton's third law? Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds isare essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking is, is the magnitude of the force between the masses during a collision with speeds V$V$ and -2v$-2v$ the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with v$v$ and -v$-v$? IfI feel they would be.

Say we have equal masses M1 and M2, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at same initial speeds.

But what if now we do same but one velocity is V, other is -2v. Is the force from above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, becuase the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by N3l. Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds is essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking is, is the magnitude of force between the masses during a collision with speeds V and -2v the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with v and -v? If feel they would be.

Say we have equal masses $M_1$ and $M_2$, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at the same initial speeds.

But what if now we do the same but one velocity is $V$, other is $-2v$. Is the force from the above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, because the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by Newton's third law? Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds are essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking, is the magnitude of the force between the masses during a collision with speeds $V$ and $-2v$ the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with $v$ and $-v$? I feel they would be.

Say we have equal masses M1 and M2, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at same initial speeds.

But what if now we do same but one velocity is V, other is -2v. Is the force from above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, becuase the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by N3l. Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds is essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like myth bustersMythBusters.

What ImI'm asking is, is the magnitude of force between the masses during a collision with speeds V and -2v samethe same magnitude as they would be for a collision atwith v and -v? If feel they would be. .

Say we have equal masses M1 and M2, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at same initial speeds.

But what if now we do same but one velocity is V, other is -2v. Is the force from above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, becuase the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by N3l. Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds is essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like myth busters.

What Im asking is the magnitude of force between the masses during collision with speeds V and -2v same magnitude they would be for collision at v and -v? If feel they would be. .

Say we have equal masses M1 and M2, traveling at equal but opposite velocities. Assume elastic collision. The forces are equal and they come to stop, then accelerate away from one another at same initial speeds.

But what if now we do same but one velocity is V, other is -2v. Is the force from above example equal to the forces felt in this case? Wouldn't it have to be right, becuase the masses don't know how fast one is relative to the other, and the forces have to be equal by N3l. Just now they act longer, causing the change in momentum, such that the balls switch velocities compared to before the collision.

Clarification edit: We know the forces felt by two cars colliding at equal and opposite speeds is essentially the same as hitting a wall. Like MythBusters.

What I'm asking is, is the magnitude of force between the masses during a collision with speeds V and -2v the same magnitude as they would be for a collision with v and -v? If feel they would be.

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Kevin C Speltz
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Kevin C Speltz
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Kevin C Speltz
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  • 18
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