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Jun 22, 2020 at 21:15 vote accept Karim Chahine
S Jun 22, 2020 at 17:34 history suggested Stratiev CC BY-SA 4.0
Added the equations from the review into the question.
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:49 comment added Karim Chahine Yes, I suspect so. By plugging in the specific function I was trying to gain some insight but couldn't. Could you maybe show me the intuitive explanation of that formula or link something? All I can think of is that the cross product will be parallel to $\boldsymbol{\hat{z}}$ for all $k$ and I expect it to be a unitary contribution to the integral for all $k$ because it's the area of a 1x1 square. If that's all it is then I can see why it holds.
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:45 answer added Jahan Claes timeline score: 4
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:45 review Suggested edits
S Jun 22, 2020 at 17:34
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:34 comment added Jahan Claes You will definitely make this too complicated if you plug in a specific function for $\tilde d$, because this equation holds for ANY $\tilde d (k)$.
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:06 comment added Karim Chahine That's the point, I'm not able to intuitively check that it is correct.
Jun 22, 2020 at 15:55 comment added Jahan Claes It's not clear what you want to derive. What definition of winding number do you want to start with to get 1.38? Because what Asboth is saying is that equation 1.38 is the mathematical definition of a winding number, and you should be able to check it matches your intuitive definition of a winding number.
Jun 22, 2020 at 15:50 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 4 characters in body; edited title
Jun 22, 2020 at 15:39 history asked Karim Chahine CC BY-SA 4.0