Timeline for Making the sloppy time-reversal transformation precise
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
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Jun 22, 2020 at 13:47 | comment | added | Atom | First, one doesn't talk of derivative of $f(t)$. It is derivative of $f$. Second, (in sloppy language) the derivative of $f(-t)$ wrt $t$ evaluated at $t$ is minus derivative of $f(t)$ wrt $t$ evaluated at $-t$. You can see how bad language can easily confuse. | |
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:40 | comment | added | mike stone | How is replacing $t$ by $-t$ an abuse of notation? That the deriviatve of $f(-t)$ wrt $t$ is minus the derivative of $f(t)$ wrt $t$ s just the chain rule of elementary calculus. | |
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:37 | comment | added | Atom | @mikestone I don’t like abusing notation. (And that’s a curse!) | |
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:35 | comment | added | mike stone | I found the original statement by Susskind much easier to understand. What is wrong with it? He simply replaces $t$ by $-t$ in his equation. | |
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:24 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 1 character in body; edited tags
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Jun 22, 2020 at 13:09 | history | asked | Atom | CC BY-SA 4.0 |