Timeline for Objects rolling down inclined plane at different speeds
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 13, 2020 at 14:46 | history | edited | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 13, 2020 at 14:40 | history | edited | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 13, 2020 at 14:32 | comment | added | Gert | This is why it's inertia that determines the velocity (and angular velocity), not the coefficient of friction $\mu$. | |
| Jun 13, 2020 at 14:30 | comment | added | Gert | Your E.o.M. $g\sin\theta-\mu g \cos\theta=a$ is not correct (as I outlined in my answer) because it offers the possibility of $a<0$!!, high $\mu$. Not all friction force $F_f=\mu g\cos\theta$ is 'used'. | |
| Jun 13, 2020 at 14:21 | history | edited | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 13, 2020 at 12:20 | comment | added | Not_Einstein | I don't question what you wrote nor the fact that objects with different moments of inertia roll with different accelerations/speeds. I'm just trying to reconcile the implication of the eq. I wrote in my original post that the 𝜇's must therefore be different. There is no other parameter in that eq. to distinguish one object from another. | |
| Jun 13, 2020 at 5:49 | comment | added | Gert | No. See my edit, below the page break. | |
| Jun 13, 2020 at 5:48 | history | edited | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 12, 2020 at 18:46 | comment | added | Not_Einstein | If the 𝜇 are not different, then both objects would have the same equation of motion of their centers of mass along the plane and arrive at the bottom at the same time, no? | |
| Jun 12, 2020 at 17:05 | history | edited | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 12, 2020 at 16:53 | history | answered | Gert | CC BY-SA 4.0 |