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May 18, 2020 at 12:29 comment added user87745 The field theory version of statistical mechanics comes when you go to Euclidean time and the Lagrangian simply becomes Hamiltonian there. That's how the connection is established in the first place. What I am saying is that there is no conceptual link established between the Lagrangian formalism and statistical mechanics, rather, the Lagrangian is converted to a Hamiltonian to make the transition to statistical mechanics. Correct me if I am wrong.
Jan 30, 2015 at 18:48 comment added Skyler Could you elaborate on this a bit more, it seems to be exactly related to a question I previously asked: physics.stackexchange.com/q/161559
Mar 5, 2013 at 4:59 comment added N. Virgo I know about this. I wish I understood it better, but I don't think it's what I'm looking for. At least, the connection between the two ideas is not obvious.
Mar 5, 2013 at 4:17 history answered Xiao-Qi Sun CC BY-SA 3.0