Skip to main content
Physics

Return to Question

improved format
Source Link
Harish Chandra Rajpoot
Harish Chandra Rajpoot
  • 2.5k
  • 20
  • 24
  • 41

OkOK, so I know that charge flows from high potential to low potential, for eg,. if there were 2$2$ spheres of 5V$5V$ and 3V$3V$, then charge would keep flowing until their potentials become equal, iei. 4Ve. $4V$, so then even in the case of a sphere and wire, charge should flow from the sphere to wire until their potential becomes V/2$V/2$ and then why does the wire develops a potential equal to the sphere iei. Ve. $V$ ?

Ok so I know that charge flows from high potential to low potential, for eg, if there were 2 spheres of 5V and 3V, then charge would keep flowing until their potentials become equal, ie. 4V, so then even in the case of a sphere and wire, charge should flow from the sphere to wire until their potential becomes V/2 and then why does the wire develops a potential equal to the sphere ie. V ?

OK, so I know that charge flows from high potential to low potential, for eg. if there were $2$ spheres of $5V$ and $3V$, then charge would keep flowing until their potentials become equal, i.e. $4V$, so then even in the case of a sphere and wire, charge should flow from the sphere to wire until their potential becomes $V/2$ and then why does the wire develops a potential equal to the sphere i.e. $V$ ?

Source Link
Kritii Gupta
Kritii Gupta
  • 1

When a connecting wire is connected to a charged body why does it develop the same potential as the body?

Ok so I know that charge flows from high potential to low potential, for eg, if there were 2 spheres of 5V and 3V, then charge would keep flowing until their potentials become equal, ie. 4V, so then even in the case of a sphere and wire, charge should flow from the sphere to wire until their potential becomes V/2 and then why does the wire develops a potential equal to the sphere ie. V ?