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Mar 9, 2020 at 22:40 comment added BioPhysicist I agree that if a force never has a net torque about the COM then that's true, but the first part of your answer seems to say "affects COM"$\to$"acts through COM" in general.
Mar 9, 2020 at 21:56 comment added John Alexiou @AaronStevens yes it does because a pseudo force only affects the COM motion and has no effect on the net torque on the body.
Mar 9, 2020 at 20:48 comment added BioPhysicist Just because a force affects COM motion doesn't mean it acts through the COM though
Mar 9, 2020 at 15:42 comment added John Alexiou Related: physics.stackexchange.com/a/228467/392
Mar 9, 2020 at 12:44 comment added John Alexiou @AbsoluteZero - yes, unless the rotating reference frame was accelerating rotationally. Then a pseudo-torque would need to be added to the body to account for the change in angular momentum.
Mar 9, 2020 at 3:28 comment added AbsoluteZero I mean that would all pseudo forces act on center of mass. Even forces like coriolis force which are a result of observing from rotating frame of reference?
Mar 8, 2020 at 23:46 history answered John Alexiou CC BY-SA 4.0