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Dec 24, 2019 at 11:49 vote accept Dabruh
Dec 24, 2019 at 11:48 answer added user250178 timeline score: 1
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:39 answer added alephzero timeline score: 1
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:34 comment added dmckee --- ex-moderator kitten The LHS of that erxpression is also ill-defined for a radial trajectory as $d\theta$ is zero along the path.
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:33 comment added dmckee --- ex-moderator kitten @Thomas Radial trajectories are orbits within the definition used in the context of central force motion (though they are problematic in some cases for spaceflight).
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:31 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
edited tags; edited tags
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:29 comment added Triatticus That right there is the key, this ODE is assuming a nonzero angular momentum
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:27 comment added Dabruh Probably, however I taught that it might be because the angular momentum with respect to the origin (mass that produces the force field) is always zero for an object falling radially inwards. And when deriving the path equation, we made the assumption that the angular momentum is constant, but not zero.
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:23 comment added Thomas Abshier Would it be because a body falling inwards is not in orbit, and thus does not fall inside the limits of the applicability of the equation?
Dec 23, 2019 at 20:20 history asked Dabruh CC BY-SA 4.0