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Nov 26 at 7:23 history edited Qmechanic
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Jul 17, 2018 at 10:24 comment added N. Virgo @juanrga I understand that, more or less, but I am having trouble seeing the connection to my question. Could you be more explicit about that please?
Jul 17, 2018 at 7:22 comment added juanrga Note that the classical Liouvillian is just the first term in a power series expansion of the quantum Liouvillian in powers of $\hbar$. And the quantum Liouvillian follows from a mixed superposition of quantum pure states.
Jul 17, 2018 at 7:17 comment added juanrga The generator of time translations in statistical mechanics (either classical or quantum) is the Liouvillian, which is a function of the Hamiltonian, never the Lagrangian. In classical statistical mechanics $\mathcal{L}=\{H, \}$ and the state evolution is $\rho(t) = \exp[\mathcal{L}t] \rho_0$. The Liouvillian is a function of the Hamiltonian because the generator of time translations in quantum mechanics is the Hamiltonian.
Jul 14, 2018 at 7:04 comment added N. Virgo @juanrga the question is purely about classical physics.
Jul 13, 2018 at 19:18 comment added juanrga As emphasized by Weinberg in his QFT textbook, the generator of time translations in quantum mechanics is the Hamiltonian, not the Lagrangian. The so-called Lagrangian formulation of quantum mechanics is not a proper Lagrangian formulation, because it is the Hamiltonian which is being really used: "It is the Hamiltonian formalism that is needed to calculate the S-matrix (whether by operator or path-integral methods) but it is not always easy to choose Hamiltonians that yield a Lorentz-invariant S-matrix."
Oct 31, 2015 at 23:48 answer added Oscar Heath-Stephens timeline score: 2
May 9, 2013 at 22:28 answer added Dilaton timeline score: 6
Mar 23, 2013 at 22:35 answer added gatsu timeline score: 3
S Mar 5, 2013 at 10:18 history bounty ended N. Virgo
S Mar 5, 2013 at 10:18 history notice removed N. Virgo
Mar 5, 2013 at 4:17 answer added Xiao-Qi Sun timeline score: 7
Mar 4, 2013 at 20:56 comment added Vijay Murthy @Slaviks, Thanks for the comment. One can write an action functional and need not do an RG. The OP asked for a Lagrangian description, not an RG. The MSR action functional can be written for particle systems too. So I dont get your comment. Perhaps I am missing something.
Mar 4, 2013 at 19:23 comment added Slaviks @VijayMurthy For Wilson RG, all spin models get cast into continuous form which means you get Landau-Ginzburg-type Lagrangian.
S Mar 3, 2013 at 5:05 history bounty started N. Virgo
S Mar 3, 2013 at 5:05 history notice added N. Virgo Reward existing answer
Feb 28, 2013 at 12:06 answer added David Bar Moshe timeline score: 16
Jan 18, 2013 at 13:03 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/292255889287692290
Jan 18, 2013 at 11:27 comment added N. Virgo @VijayMurthy that looks interesting, and I'll look into it further. From those handwritten notes it looks like they're starting with some stochastic dynamics and then deriving something that looks like a path integral; whereas I'm hoping for something that starts with a classical Lagrangian and then derives a statistical ensemble based on it. But thanks, and I look forward to taking a closer look.
Jan 18, 2013 at 11:16 comment added Vijay Murthy There is the Response-function / Martin-Siggia-Rose formalism which casts a Langevin description into a path-integral picture. See here for a simpler one-particle description. Not sure if this is what you are looking for.
Jan 18, 2013 at 10:27 history asked N. Virgo CC BY-SA 3.0