Timeline for Can I safely think that particles are particles but not waves?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 20, 2019 at 8:00 | answer | added | Andrei | timeline score: -2 | |
| S Nov 19, 2019 at 19:50 | history | suggested | Alex Robinson | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
removed fluff
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| Nov 19, 2019 at 16:57 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Nov 19, 2019 at 19:50 | |||||
| Nov 19, 2019 at 16:56 | comment | added | Frederic Thomas | @Student The heat equation indeed has some similarities with the Schrödinger equation (SE). However, the coefficient of the time-dependent part contains an imaginary $i$. This makes a big difference. | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 15:46 | answer | added | R.W. Bird | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 14:53 | comment | added | Student | @SolomonSlow right, because there are interaction terms in interference experiments. | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 14:50 | comment | added | Solomon Slow | "Freely random" does not explain the regular, wave-like interference patterns that appear in those experiments and instruments that make use of and/or reveal them. | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 14:37 | comment | added | Student | I should have been more clear on this: I meant the fact that the correlation function $P(x,y)$ is the integration in $t$ of the heat kernel $K_t(x,y)$. A reference is Costello's renormalization and effective field theory chapter 2.6. | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 14:30 | comment | added | probably_someone | Let's start with the following: "The free theory of 1-dimensional QFT (seems to can) be described by heat equation". What specifically do you mean when you say this? | |
| Nov 19, 2019 at 13:55 | review | First posts | |||
| Nov 19, 2019 at 16:58 | |||||
| Nov 19, 2019 at 13:53 | history | asked | Student | CC BY-SA 4.0 |