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Jan 16, 2013 at 0:00 comment added jkej @kηives The formulas are valid for arbitrary times $t_1$ and $t_2$, but I guess they need to be when the magnet is far above and far below for the question to make sense.
Jan 15, 2013 at 23:54 comment added kηives Are those two times, $t_1$ and $t_2$ referring to when the magnet is far above the coil, and far below the coil respectively?
Jan 15, 2013 at 23:40 history answered jkej CC BY-SA 3.0