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Nov 5, 2019 at 20:48 history edited CR Drost CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 5, 2019 at 20:40 comment added CR Drost @ralfcis I edited the above answer to contain a section where I do that derivation with high school algebra with only one bit of cheating (I insist that there is a number $e$ such that $e^x \approx 1 + x$ for small $x$ but I do not prove that it exists or give you a practical way to calculate $e$ or any of the like.)
Nov 5, 2019 at 20:39 history edited CR Drost CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 5, 2019 at 18:53 comment added ralfcis vectors n calculus, I read your bio. I'm still just in algebra.
Nov 5, 2019 at 18:32 comment added CR Drost @ralfcis the first is also pre-GR—it is a result directly from the first order of the Lorentz transform in $\beta$. So when I say there is nothing else to special relativity I mean that $$\lim_{N\to\infty} \begin{bmatrix} 1&-\phi/N\\-\phi/N&1\end{bmatrix}^N$$ gives the Lorentz transform in its full detail.
Nov 5, 2019 at 17:30 comment added ralfcis Thanks, I'll have to reread this several times though. I can recognize your first part is the Rindler metric and I'm being constantly pulled back and forth between that and the Minkowski metric. Not seeing the light go on yet. My intelligence does not match my curiosity.
Nov 5, 2019 at 17:20 history answered CR Drost CC BY-SA 4.0