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Nov 20, 2020 at 19:04 comment added ESCM So how is it possible for the object to stop? Doesn't its speed vary in the final phases of the movement?
Oct 27, 2019 at 21:50 answer added The_Sympathizer timeline score: 0
Oct 27, 2019 at 14:26 answer added nonopolarity timeline score: 0
Oct 26, 2019 at 18:07 answer added bdsl timeline score: 0
Oct 26, 2019 at 3:52 answer added Level River St timeline score: 0
Oct 26, 2019 at 3:47 vote accept Conyare
Oct 25, 2019 at 22:45 answer added Pere timeline score: 0
Oct 25, 2019 at 20:25 answer added Sam timeline score: 0
Oct 25, 2019 at 17:48 comment added user182521 I think maybe a way to reword the question in a way that hasn't been adressed is: if your hand is pushing the object with a constant force greater than the kinetic friction force (positive net force), why doesn't the object move off from your hand with its increasing speed?
Oct 25, 2019 at 17:09 comment added Barmar Punch the object. Your hand will stop, but the object will keep moving until friction slows it to a stop.
Oct 25, 2019 at 16:44 answer added levitopher timeline score: 2
Oct 25, 2019 at 16:30 comment added Peter Duniho @James: yes, sorry...it's hard to be complete in the constraints of a comment. My focus was on the OP's claim that the velocity was "constant", which implies only enough force to overcome friction. That's why I quoted that passage from the question.
Oct 25, 2019 at 16:14 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 17 characters in body; edited tags
Oct 25, 2019 at 14:20 comment added J... How did you measure your push to know that it used a constant force? How did you measure the object's path to determine its velocity and acceleration profile? It's not possible to come to a conclusion in science without doing these things.
Oct 25, 2019 at 11:18 comment added James @PeterDuniho: It's actually easy to apply more force than the friction force and maintain contact with your hand. Doing so will cause your hand and the object to accelerate. If you didn't apply more force than friction, then the object would never even begin to move at all.
Oct 25, 2019 at 10:51 answer added anna v timeline score: 1
Oct 25, 2019 at 10:40 comment added byxor I've never observed this to be true. I don't understand how you have. I just tested this by pushing a book across my desk and I was able to push it at different velocities each time.
Oct 25, 2019 at 10:27 answer added Draco-S timeline score: 2
Oct 25, 2019 at 8:41 answer added Patrick Peer timeline score: 0
Oct 25, 2019 at 5:13 comment added Peter Duniho "the object travels at a constant velocity, even if I apply more force than the kinetic friction" -- this claim in your question requires some clarification. In your hypothetical, does this object remain in contact with your hand? If so, then clearly you never are applying more force to the object than its friction. Indeed, you are always applying exactly the force required to move your hand plus the opposing force due to friction. What makes you claim that you are ever applying "more force than the kinetic friction"?
Oct 25, 2019 at 3:43 history became hot network question
Oct 25, 2019 at 0:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1187519353807392769
Oct 24, 2019 at 20:02 comment added my2cts The objects do not move at the same velocity independent of the force you apply. That is not a correct observation. They move at the same velocity as your hand.
Oct 24, 2019 at 19:54 answer added M. Enns timeline score: 30
Oct 24, 2019 at 19:54 answer added user4552 timeline score: 3
Oct 24, 2019 at 19:46 answer added BioPhysicist timeline score: 6
Oct 24, 2019 at 19:45 review First posts
Oct 24, 2019 at 20:00
Oct 24, 2019 at 19:40 history asked Conyare CC BY-SA 4.0