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Jul 3, 2019 at 3:44 comment added j k rowling I do not clearly understand this. I am quoting whatever Is written . "The spinor transforms according to" the first one. "The complete parity transformation is given by" the second one. Are not these two statements equivalent? Also I have edited the question with a screenshot of the concerning book
Jun 30, 2019 at 15:30 history edited Elio Fabri CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 5 characters in body
Jun 30, 2019 at 14:56 history answered Elio Fabri CC BY-SA 4.0