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May 14, 2019 at 1:46 comment added David White SuperCiocia, see the Copenhagen interpretation here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interpretations_of_quantum_mechanics. And note - you can't assume that the mathematical (and statistical) description of the particle is fully described before any observations, but I still maintain that the particle has a definite state before it is observed. Naturally, there is no way to prove this.
May 13, 2019 at 21:42 comment added SuperCiocia what do you mean the Copenhagen interpretation does not make sense? It says that your system is fully described by a wavefunction $\psi$, nothing else. If you want to know anything else about it, you need to act on it with an operator. You cannot assume it has a definite property (apart maybe for energy).
May 13, 2019 at 18:49 comment added David White SuperCiocia, I realize that I am thinking classically, but the Copenhagen interpretation doesn't make sense. The fact that you have no knowledge of the state of a particle should not mean that the particle does not have definite properties, or that the particle has all possible properties, until measured. Because of this, I believe your bulleted point 2 in your answer.
May 13, 2019 at 13:14 history answered SuperCiocia CC BY-SA 4.0