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Apr 1, 2019 at 18:20 comment added J.G. For a relativistic treatment, see here.
Apr 1, 2019 at 16:43 comment added knzhou @Chemomechanics No. If you had a gas of massless particles, the velocity is distributed like $e^{-|v|}$, but your logic would say it's also $e^{-v^2}$.
Mar 31, 2019 at 20:56 comment added jacob1729 @Chemomechanics if you can find a sensible way to make that work I'd be interested. It's possible but the barriers I see are: (1) each collision essentially randomises the velocities of both atoms which makes the "many collisions" idea seem wrong and (2) why should that apply to components and not to the speed?
Mar 31, 2019 at 20:42 comment added Chemomechanics That distribution can’t be explained by applying the CLT to a large number of random kicks from previous collisions?
Mar 31, 2019 at 16:55 history answered jacob1729 CC BY-SA 4.0