Timeline for If an object with more mass experiences a greater gravitational force, why don't more massive objects fall faster? [duplicate]
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| S May 25, 2021 at 19:40 | vote | accept | Ricky | ||
| Mar 25, 2019 at 8:27 | history | duplicates list edited | John Rennie | duplicates list edited from Don't heavier objects actually fall faster because they exert their own gravity?, Why do two bodies of different masses fall at the same rate (in the absence of air resistance)? to Don't heavier objects actually fall faster because they exert their own gravity? | |
| Mar 25, 2019 at 8:26 | history | duplicates list edited | John Rennie | duplicates list edited from Why do two bodies of different masses fall at the same rate (in the absence of air resistance)? to Don't heavier objects actually fall faster because they exert their own gravity?, Why do two bodies of different masses fall at the same rate (in the absence of air resistance)? | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 21:20 | comment | added | GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90 | @JohnRennie the correct duplicate to indicate for this question should have been physics.stackexchange.com/questions/3534/… | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 20:38 | vote | accept | Ricky | ||
| S May 25, 2021 at 19:40 | |||||
| Mar 24, 2019 at 15:25 | history | closed |
John Rennie ZeroTheHero knzhou Qmechanic♦ |
Duplicate of Why do two bodies of different masses fall at the same rate (in the absence of air resistance)? | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 15:25 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Mar 24, 2019 at 15:15 | answer | added | Bob D | timeline score: 1 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 14:35 | answer | added | my2cts | timeline score: 1 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 14:13 | answer | added | Tim Pederick | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:54 | comment | added | user213933 | See acceleration of a body of mass $m$ in influence of force by another body of mass $M$ and separated by a distance $r$ on it is given as $\frac{GM}{r^2}$ in the direction of applied force. You can observe that it is independent of mass $m$. | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:45 | answer | added | Maxwell's Ghost | timeline score: 1 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:37 | comment | added | knzhou | @my2cts From my reading of the OP, it seems that he may be confused about how multiplication works, and instead using the intuition for addition. He is essentially saying something like "$F = G + M + m - r$, so the two $F$'s for two objects are approximately the same because $M$ is much bigger than $m$. But they're not exactly the same". | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:34 | history | edited | knzhou | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:13 | comment | added | knzhou | Possible duplicate of Why do two bodies of different masses fall at the same rate (in the absence of air resistance)? | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:03 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Mar 24, 2019 at 11:52 | answer | added | GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90 | timeline score: 2 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 11:22 | answer | added | Dale | timeline score: 5 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:57 | comment | added | PM 2Ring | Let $M$ be the mass of the Earth, and $m$ the mass of the falling body. $F=GMm/r^2=ma$, where $a$ is the acceleration of the falling body in the COM (centre of mass) frame of the (Earth + falling body) system and $r$ is the distance between the COM of the Earth and the COM of the falling body. Then $a=GM/r^2$. The constant acceleration of $9.81 m/s^2$ only applies to falling bodies near the Earth's surface. | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:41 | comment | added | Ricky | @PM2Ring: Er, why? Should the object's acceleration be independent of its mass, wouldn't it have to be independent of the gravitational force as well? Would then, say, two stars falling on each other accelerate at the same 9.8 meters per second squared, no more and no less? | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:32 | comment | added | PM 2Ring | @Ricky The difference is due to how much the Earth accelerates upwards to meet the falling object, in the centre of mass frame of (the Earth + object), the object's acceleration towards the centre of mass is still independent of its mass. | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:24 | comment | added | BioPhysicist | Inertia isn't a force | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:23 | comment | added | Ricky | @PM2Ring: Well, it says in the approved answer, "For typical objects that might be dropped, the first correction term has a magnitude of a few kilograms divided by the mass of the Earth, which works out to 10−24. So the inaccuracy introduced by ignoring the motion of the Earth is roughly one part in a trillion trillion, far beyond the sensitivity of any measuring device that exists (or can even be imagined) today." So there is a difference after all. | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:21 | comment | added | anna v | see this hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/Forces/isq.html#isqg | |
| S Mar 24, 2019 at 10:19 | history | suggested | Thomas Fritsch | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added tags, using MathJax, see https://physics.stackexchange.com/help/notation
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| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:18 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Mar 24, 2019 at 10:19 | |||||
| Mar 24, 2019 at 10:00 | review | Close votes | |||
| Mar 24, 2019 at 15:30 | |||||
| Mar 24, 2019 at 9:49 | comment | added | PM 2Ring | $F=ma$, so the gravitational acceleration is independent of the mass of the falling body. However, see physics.stackexchange.com/q/3534 | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 9:38 | comment | added | my2cts | What is your argument against Galileo's conclusion? | |
| Mar 24, 2019 at 9:30 | history | asked | Ricky | CC BY-SA 4.0 |