I can't understand why $\left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial V} \right)_T=-\left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T} \right)_V\left(\frac{\partial T}{\partial V}\right)_P$;. Why does the -venegative sign arisesarise? I can easily write $\left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial V}\right)_T=\left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T}\right)_V\left(\frac{\partial T}{\partial V}\right)_P$ from the rule of partial derivative, but what's the -venegative sign for?
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