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Feb 10, 2019 at 22:39 comment added Navneeth Ramakrishnan I agree, the notion that the effect is immediate can be misleading. Hence the link to the related answer where things are a bit easier to understand. Although you might say Alice performs a measurement and Bob's qubit then "immediately collapses" to a correlated state, this way of thinking is not ideal as it implies causation which is not really present.
Feb 10, 2019 at 21:49 comment added Tamás V My only concern is that the (quantum computing) books I read so far talk about immediate effect on Bob's qubit. But why if there is no such thing as "arrival time"?
Feb 10, 2019 at 21:39 vote accept Tamás V
Feb 10, 2019 at 21:39 comment added Tamás V No, the experiment for the "arrival time" would not work. Answer accepted, thanks.
Feb 10, 2019 at 21:08 comment added Tamás V I think the "arrival time" is well defined, via the following experiment: in K, let Alice teleport |0> at time t, and let Bob measure at time t+dt in the computational basis. Let them repeat this 100 times, where dt>0 is a small constant. Then they run another 100 times using -dt (i.e. Bob will measure before t). Using Alices's records, let them later select those cases when Bob really got |0>: they will see that during the first 100 runs Bob always got |0> as measurement result in those cases, but not during the second 100 runs. So they conclude that the "arrival time" must have been at dt=0.
Feb 10, 2019 at 21:01 comment added Tamás V Thanks for the answer, I have to think about it more. The related answer makes perfect sense.
Feb 10, 2019 at 20:50 history edited Navneeth Ramakrishnan CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2019 at 18:51 history answered Navneeth Ramakrishnan CC BY-SA 4.0