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Jul 11, 2023 at 19:20 comment added htr There is an issue in this derivation, because under conformal transformation, $b(z) \rightarrow (1+\frac{\partial \epsilon}{\partial z})^{\lambda} b(z)$.
Oct 6, 2019 at 18:03 comment added user1379857 You do an implicit integration by parts in the fourth to last line, $(1 - \lambda) b \overline{\partial} \partial \epsilon c \mapsto -(1 - \lambda) \overline{\partial} \epsilon \partial(bc)$. This only works if the boundary term is $0$, meaning you have to impose that $\overline{\partial}\epsilon = 0$ on the bounary of integration. There is nothing wrong with this, just thought I'd point it out.
Jan 15, 2019 at 20:34 history answered thi CC BY-SA 4.0