Timeline for Does the wavefunction probabilities have to sum to 1? [duplicate]
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Jan 7, 2019 at 12:58 | history | closed |
ZeroTheHero Buzz♦ Kyle Kanos John Rennie quantum-mechanics Users with the quantum-mechanics badge or a synonym can single-handedly close quantum-mechanics questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed. |
Duplicate of Who is doing the normalization of wave function in the time evolution of wave function? | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 22:33 | answer | added | InertialObserver | timeline score: 1 | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 21:10 | review | Close votes | |||
Jan 7, 2019 at 12:58 | |||||
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:41 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | Related/possible duplicate: physics.stackexchange.com/q/156367/50583, physics.stackexchange.com/q/167099/50583 (for (un)normalized states), physics.stackexchange.com/q/169936/50583 (for why we need unitarity) | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:36 | history | edited | user84158 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Jan 6, 2019 at 19:34 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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Jan 6, 2019 at 19:30 | comment | added | user84158 | @ZeroTheHero So instead of $U^\dagger U=1$ you could have $U^\dagger U$ just has to be a real number. (is that right?) Is there a name for such a matrix? | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:29 | comment | added | ZeroTheHero | unitarity preserves the norm, whatever that norm is. | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:26 | comment | added | user84158 | @ZeroTheHero but what then is the equivalent of Unitarity? | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:25 | comment | added | ZeroTheHero | you can define the prob. as you do but why do it this way? You still have to compute $\int \vert \psi\vert^2$ so no savings. You might as well set it to one and be done with it. | |
Jan 6, 2019 at 18:48 | history | asked | user84158 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |