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Jan 7, 2019 at 12:58 history closed ZeroTheHero
Buzz
Kyle Kanos
John Rennie quantum-mechanics
Duplicate of Who is doing the normalization of wave function in the time evolution of wave function?
Jan 6, 2019 at 22:33 answer added InertialObserver timeline score: 1
Jan 6, 2019 at 21:10 review Close votes
Jan 7, 2019 at 12:58
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:41 comment added ACuriousMind Related/possible duplicate: physics.stackexchange.com/q/156367/50583, physics.stackexchange.com/q/167099/50583 (for (un)normalized states), physics.stackexchange.com/q/169936/50583 (for why we need unitarity)
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:36 history edited user84158 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2019 at 19:34 history edited Qmechanic
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Jan 6, 2019 at 19:30 comment added user84158 @ZeroTheHero So instead of $U^\dagger U=1$ you could have $U^\dagger U$ just has to be a real number. (is that right?) Is there a name for such a matrix?
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:29 comment added ZeroTheHero unitarity preserves the norm, whatever that norm is.
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:26 comment added user84158 @ZeroTheHero but what then is the equivalent of Unitarity?
Jan 6, 2019 at 19:25 comment added ZeroTheHero you can define the prob. as you do but why do it this way? You still have to compute $\int \vert \psi\vert^2$ so no savings. You might as well set it to one and be done with it.
Jan 6, 2019 at 18:48 history asked user84158 CC BY-SA 4.0