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Mar 23, 2016 at 8:31 history edited Qmechanic
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Mar 23, 2016 at 8:15 answer added daleeo timeline score: 1
Nov 25, 2012 at 11:21 answer added Murod Abdukhakimov timeline score: -3
Nov 25, 2012 at 8:17 comment added Qmechanic Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/6782/2451
Nov 25, 2012 at 7:59 answer added jcohen79 timeline score: 1
Nov 25, 2012 at 7:48 answer added John Rennie timeline score: 14
Nov 25, 2012 at 5:21 answer added Paul timeline score: 1
Nov 25, 2012 at 3:41 comment added Alfred Centauri This really hinges on what is meant by "to be in two positions". According to standard QM, when a particle is observed to be in a particular place, it is there and nowhere else. Before the observation, however, the particle's position may not be definite, i.e., it's not at a particular place at all; it's not in a position eigenstate. So, I don't think it's correct or helpful to say that a particle can be in two positions at the same time.
Nov 25, 2012 at 2:18 comment added raindrop see discovermagazine.com/2005/jun/cover just google it google.com/…
Nov 25, 2012 at 2:09 history edited Qmechanic
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Nov 25, 2012 at 1:56 history asked Nicholas J. CC BY-SA 3.0