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Jul 24, 2022 at 21:20 comment added Kostya_I Does the expression $\frac{d\mathbf{r}}{dt}$ denote the derivative of a function $\mathbf{r}(t)$ of a variable $t$, as it is customary? If so, what is that function and how is it related to the events $E_{1,2}$ mentioned in the OP?
Dec 21, 2018 at 0:08 comment added MannyC I think this proves that null intervals are invariant, but it doesn't apply to a general pair of events $E_1$, $E_2$. In other words, your proof works even if $\gamma$ (the Lorentz factor) is arbitrary.
Dec 20, 2018 at 22:39 history answered InertialObserver CC BY-SA 4.0