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Dec 16, 2018 at 6:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1074182346906263552
Dec 16, 2018 at 5:13 vote accept Jian
Dec 16, 2018 at 5:06 answer added MannyC timeline score: 3
Dec 16, 2018 at 5:04 history edited Jian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2018 at 4:59 comment added Jian To simplify the problem, I use "spinless fermion". My question remains the same if you add the spin, $ \{k_0=\pm 1 \} \otimes \{ s=\uparrow ,\downarrow \}$ then looking at eight-bodies wavefunction $\Psi_8=\textbf{Pf}[g_{ij}]$ , 4 states but 8 particles. Of course, you can always add more particles.
Dec 16, 2018 at 4:54 comment added Jian Pfaffian is similar to the determinant, they are both summations over permutations. But Pfaffian also takes care of the "pairing" structure. They both serve as a tool to anti-symmetrize many-body wave functions. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian
Dec 16, 2018 at 4:43 comment added ZeroTheHero Maybe some additional information about Pfaffians would be welcomed.
Dec 16, 2018 at 4:27 comment added MannyC No that's ok, the spin-statistic theorem applies to theories with Lorentz invariance. In a generic quantum many body hamiltonian we don't even need to have the "spin" as a quantum number. By fermion he just means that those are anticommuting degrees of freedom.
Dec 16, 2018 at 4:18 comment added anna v " spinless fermion " ???? fermions by definition have spin 1/2 those are the ones obeying pauli exclusion. spinless=boson , no pauli exclusion .
Dec 16, 2018 at 0:40 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2018 at 0:23 history edited Jian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2018 at 0:16 history edited Jian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2018 at 0:07 history asked Jian CC BY-SA 4.0