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Nov 13, 2018 at 21:59 vote accept Luan Nico
Nov 13, 2018 at 19:09 answer added G. Smith timeline score: 3
Nov 13, 2018 at 16:28 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
added 12 characters in body; edited tags; edited tags; edited tags
Nov 13, 2018 at 16:22 answer added user4552 timeline score: 1
Nov 13, 2018 at 16:17 comment added Zo the Relativist If you're doing a simulation, why are you analyticially solving it? Why not just use the equations of motion, and some sort of Euler method to do the time-steps? It probably will be less computationally intensive at the end of the day.
Nov 13, 2018 at 16:09 answer added pinaki nayak timeline score: 1
Nov 13, 2018 at 15:27 comment added Harshit Joshi Oh! I thought you just left the particle there. Anyways I really don't think someone will answer this question on this site because it does not ask anything conceptual and therefore will not be useful for the community.
Nov 13, 2018 at 15:20 comment added Luan Nico That's not true if the particle has a starting velocity $\textbf{v}_0$ with $\theta$ component
Nov 13, 2018 at 15:18 comment added Harshit Joshi Well $\theta(t) = \theta_0$ because the particle would just move radially outwards so $\theta$ should not change.
Nov 13, 2018 at 14:29 history asked Luan Nico CC BY-SA 4.0