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I have a question about an argument used in Schwabl's "Advanced Quantum Mechanics" concerning the properties of the Klein-Gordan-Equation (see page 120):

enter image description here

Since the eigenenergies of free solutions are $E= \pm \sqrt{p^2c^2+m^2c^4}$the energy states aren't bounded from below. But I don't understand why that then K-G-equation provide a scalar theory that does not contain spin and then could only describe particles with zero spin.

Intuitively, I guess because that spin can't regard by a scalar equation but I find this "argument" too squishy and would like to know a more plausible argument.

I have a question about an argument used in Schwabl's "Advanced Quantum Mechanics" concerning the properties of the Klein-Gordan-Equation:

enter image description here

Since the eigenenergies of free solutions are $E= \pm \sqrt{p^2c^2+m^2c^4}$the energy states aren't bounded from below. But I don't understand why that then K-G-equation provide a scalar theory that does not contain spin and then could only describe particles with zero spin.

Intuitively, I guess because that spin can't regard by a scalar equation but I find this "argument" too squishy and would like to know a more plausible argument.

I have a question about an argument used in Schwabl's "Advanced Quantum Mechanics" concerning the properties of the Klein-Gordan-Equation (see page 120):

enter image description here

Since the eigenenergies of free solutions are $E= \pm \sqrt{p^2c^2+m^2c^4}$the energy states aren't bounded from below. But I don't understand why that then K-G-equation provide a scalar theory that does not contain spin and then could only describe particles with zero spin.

Intuitively, I guess because that spin can't regard by a scalar equation but I find this "argument" too squishy and would like to know a more plausible argument.

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user267839
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Klein-Gordon-Equation contains no Spin

I have a question about an argument used in Schwabl's "Advanced Quantum Mechanics" concerning the properties of the Klein-Gordan-Equation:

enter image description here

Since the eigenenergies of free solutions are $E= \pm \sqrt{p^2c^2+m^2c^4}$the energy states aren't bounded from below. But I don't understand why that then K-G-equation provide a scalar theory that does not contain spin and then could only describe particles with zero spin.

Intuitively, I guess because that spin can't regard by a scalar equation but I find this "argument" too squishy and would like to know a more plausible argument.