Timeline for Why would classical correlation in Bell's experiment be a linear function of angle?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
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| Dec 3, 2023 at 6:20 | comment | added | QuantumPotatoïd | The question boils down to know if the domain of integration can depend on the angles of measurement. Causally this could be possible in the knowledge but informatically how would those angles be transmitted to the covariance calculator ? | |
| Oct 16, 2023 at 18:10 | comment | added | QuantumPotatoïd | Why $\int A(a,l)B(b,l)\rho(l)dl $ is considered local when l is both in a and b simultaneously ? If l is an element of physical reality and not information ? | |
| Feb 1, 2023 at 17:26 | history | edited | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 1, 2023 at 17:00 | history | edited | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jan 25, 2023 at 12:16 | comment | added | Pat Eblen | @Frederic Grosshans Consider the notion that probabilistic mixtures are distinctly different from fuzzy values. Fuzzy values are multi-valued for any single instance, eg, any single outcome is multi-valued, whereas probabilistic mixtures are single-valued for any single outcome. “Single-valued” means real-numbered, and real numbers are infinitely precise and thus not physically realizable, ie, they are not mathematical representations of anything in physical reality. Every single outcome of a real experiment must be multi-valued, thus violations should be expected without non-locality. | |
| Nov 13, 2022 at 6:35 | comment | added | Chris Mayer | Are there any real data sets available? A simple xls file of actual results from a real experiment would go farther than any equations to aid in explaining why this is true. I still don't see why there is a requirement to get to exactly +- 1 for either model, and also can't see how anyone can choose a side without actual emperical data. | |
| Nov 13, 2022 at 6:29 | comment | added | Chris Mayer | Are there any real data sets available? A simple xls file of actual results from a real experiment would go farther than any equations to aid in explaining why this is true. | |
| Jan 8, 2019 at 13:41 | comment | added | Frédéric Grosshans | Actually the Bell argument also applies to a probabilistic mixture of real numbers (your “fuzzy numbers”) by a simple convexity argument. In that case, the distribution would indeed be smoother, a bit more like a cos, but would not go to +1 and –1, preserving the Bell inequality. | |
| Aug 2, 2018 at 15:52 | history | edited | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Clarification
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| Aug 1, 2018 at 17:32 | history | edited | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Aug 1, 2018 at 17:31 | history | rollback | Pat Eblen |
Rollback to Revision 1
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| Aug 1, 2018 at 16:53 | history | edited | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Aug 1, 2018 at 16:23 | history | answered | Pat Eblen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |