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Sep 29, 2021 at 23:29 answer added Gary Godfrey timeline score: 0
Sep 29, 2021 at 18:05 answer added benrg timeline score: 2
Feb 10, 2020 at 1:01 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Oct 11, 2019 at 3:03 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Sep 3, 2018 at 0:01 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1036403825442209794
Sep 2, 2018 at 7:02 history edited Orient CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2018 at 2:00 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2018 at 0:57 answer added rossng timeline score: 2
Jul 29, 2018 at 7:41 comment added Oбжорoв How does $\bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu \psi$ transform under a Lorentz transformations? Because of the rule you question, it transforms as a vector and hence $\bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi$ as a scalar.
Jul 29, 2018 at 2:18 comment added Prof. Legolasov Both vectors and sponsors are objects that the same rotation applies to. The transformation property is encoded in the representations of that group.
Jul 29, 2018 at 1:23 history edited Orient CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 29, 2018 at 1:21 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 29, 2018 at 1:14 history asked Orient CC BY-SA 4.0