Timeline for What does $\Lambda^{-1}_{\frac{1}{2}}\gamma^\mu\Lambda_{\frac{1}{2}}=\Lambda^\mu_{\phantom{\mu}\nu}\gamma^\nu$ mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 29, 2021 at 23:29 | answer | added | Gary Godfrey | timeline score: 0 | |
Sep 29, 2021 at 18:05 | answer | added | benrg | timeline score: 2 | |
Feb 10, 2020 at 1:01 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 3:03 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Sep 3, 2018 at 0:01 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1036403825442209794 | ||
Sep 2, 2018 at 7:02 | history | edited | Orient | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 30, 2018 at 2:00 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 30, 2018 at 0:57 | answer | added | rossng | timeline score: 2 | |
Jul 29, 2018 at 7:41 | comment | added | Oбжорoв | How does $\bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu \psi$ transform under a Lorentz transformations? Because of the rule you question, it transforms as a vector and hence $\bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi$ as a scalar. | |
Jul 29, 2018 at 2:18 | comment | added | Prof. Legolasov | Both vectors and sponsors are objects that the same rotation applies to. The transformation property is encoded in the representations of that group. | |
Jul 29, 2018 at 1:23 | history | edited | Orient | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Jul 29, 2018 at 1:21 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Jul 29, 2018 at 1:14 | history | asked | Orient | CC BY-SA 4.0 |