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Feb 14, 2022 at 9:48 comment added Boson Bear Although the question is bit old -- the transformation of non-Abelian gauge fields can be easily seen if you look at the covariant derivative. To make sure the covariant derivative to behave covariantly, $A_\mu$ should transform similarly as $\partial_\mu$.
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Jun 15, 2018 at 5:14 history edited SRS CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 14, 2018 at 14:46 answer added FrodCube timeline score: 2
Jun 14, 2018 at 14:44 history edited AccidentalFourierTransform CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 14, 2018 at 14:44 history edited SRS CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 14, 2018 at 14:41 comment added gj255 Under a general transformation $A$, we have $\epsilon^{\mu \nu \rho \sigma } \mapsto A^\mu{}_\alpha A^\nu{}_\beta A^\rho{}_\gamma A^\sigma{}_\delta \epsilon^{\alpha \beta \gamma \delta} = \mathrm{det}(A) \epsilon^{\mu \nu \rho \sigma}$. If $A$ is a parity transformation then its determinant is $-1$.
Jun 14, 2018 at 14:35 history asked SRS CC BY-SA 4.0