Timeline for Can dimensional regularization be viewed as a soft version of a Wilsonian cutoff?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
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Apr 16, 2018 at 14:54 | vote | accept | knzhou | ||
Mar 24, 2018 at 20:47 | comment | added | Siva | Yes, I think about it much like the diagram you drew! Maybe my answer and comments here clarify some aspects. I particularly recommend looking at some of the EFT references. | |
Mar 24, 2018 at 19:33 | answer | added | user1504 | timeline score: 4 | |
Mar 22, 2018 at 22:06 | history | edited | knzhou | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Mar 22, 2018 at 17:09 | answer | added | rparwani | timeline score: 1 | |
Mar 21, 2018 at 20:38 | answer | added | tparker | timeline score: 2 | |
Mar 21, 2018 at 20:29 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/976556462976655362 | ||
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:36 | comment | added | knzhou | @tparker I suppose so, but the way people talk about them is completely different! These two things are on opposite ends of your typical QFT book and the words draped around them are totally different. I'm wondering if that's just a historical accident, and they're really saying the same thing? | |
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:29 | comment | added | tparker | My understanding is that people believe that the two methods are equivalent, but no one's been able to show it rigorously. Don't they always give the same physical final answer in all known cases? In that case they're completely equivalent, rather than having "no relation whatsoever". | |
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:02 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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Mar 21, 2018 at 17:00 | history | asked | knzhou | CC BY-SA 3.0 |