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Apr 16, 2018 at 14:54 vote accept knzhou
Mar 24, 2018 at 20:47 comment added Siva Yes, I think about it much like the diagram you drew! Maybe my answer and comments here clarify some aspects. I particularly recommend looking at some of the EFT references.
Mar 24, 2018 at 19:33 answer added user1504 timeline score: 4
Mar 22, 2018 at 22:06 history edited knzhou CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 22, 2018 at 17:09 answer added rparwani timeline score: 1
Mar 21, 2018 at 20:38 answer added tparker timeline score: 2
Mar 21, 2018 at 20:29 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/976556462976655362
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:36 comment added knzhou @tparker I suppose so, but the way people talk about them is completely different! These two things are on opposite ends of your typical QFT book and the words draped around them are totally different. I'm wondering if that's just a historical accident, and they're really saying the same thing?
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:29 comment added tparker My understanding is that people believe that the two methods are equivalent, but no one's been able to show it rigorously. Don't they always give the same physical final answer in all known cases? In that case they're completely equivalent, rather than having "no relation whatsoever".
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:02 history edited Qmechanic
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Mar 21, 2018 at 17:00 history asked knzhou CC BY-SA 3.0