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Nov 27 at 22:58 answer added Sebastiano timeline score: 1
Jul 10, 2018 at 21:19 vote accept Sebastiano
Mar 31, 2018 at 20:20 history edited Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 19:24 history edited Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 13:01 answer added Raffaele d'Amelio timeline score: 1
Mar 26, 2018 at 21:33 comment added Sebastiano @Qmechanic I have added some details. I have not studied and resolved PDE when I was at university.
Mar 26, 2018 at 21:31 history edited Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 26, 2018 at 8:02 history edited Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 25, 2018 at 21:26 comment added Siva @Sebastiano The perpendicularity follows almost by definition of "equipotential". Since equipotential surfaces have the same value of the potential, the gradient of the potential cannot have a nonzero component along the surface. That means the gradient must necessarily be normal to the equipotential surface.
Mar 25, 2018 at 20:40 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/978008857019641858
Mar 25, 2018 at 20:28 history edited Sebastiano
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Mar 21, 2018 at 22:37 history edited Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 19, 2018 at 21:44 comment added Sebastiano @Qmechanic But Is there a mathematical proof of the your explanation? I would like to know if there is a mathematical demonstration like the one I reported. Namely, that for two parallel plates (in 3D) the equipotential surfaces turn out to be a bundle of parallel planes when the potential is changed from a higher to a lower one. I hope I have not asked a bad question because of the lack of attention I have had. Best regards.
Mar 19, 2018 at 18:53 comment added Qmechanic This seems to be merely the fact that the gradient is perpendicular to the equipotential surface.
Mar 19, 2018 at 18:50 history edited Qmechanic
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Mar 19, 2018 at 18:42 history edited Sebastiano
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Mar 19, 2018 at 11:46 history asked Sebastiano CC BY-SA 3.0