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Mar 12, 2018 at 15:21 comment added Elliot Schneider See, for example, the introduction to 1602.07982 or 1601.05000
Mar 12, 2018 at 8:33 comment added Sylvain Ribault See also this question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/339309/…
Mar 11, 2018 at 19:50 comment added Sylvain Ribault The idea might be that by rescaling a QFT you reach a renormalization group fixed point; that fixed point is scale-invariant and therefore in many cases conformally invariant; then can we recover the original QFT by deforming that CFT? This is how I would understand the question, but I do not know the answer. Anyway it is no more absurd to consider QFT as a deformation of CFT, than to consider QFT as a deformation of free QFT.
Mar 11, 2018 at 5:37 comment added Prof. Legolasov Without the context, this claim sounds absurd, sorry.
Mar 11, 2018 at 2:43 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
edited tags; edited title
Mar 11, 2018 at 0:24 history asked michelav CC BY-SA 3.0