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Ruslan
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Why would the ``in"in/out'' states asymptotically approach the free Hamiltonian eigenstates?

The ''in"in/out''out" states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$free Hamiltonian: \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation}\begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle, \end{equation} Wherewhere the Hamiltonian is split into a free and an interacting part $H=H_0+V$$H=H_0+V,$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian, and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

  2. Why would far seperatedseparated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve-evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around, the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

Why would the ``in/out'' states asymptotically approach the free Hamiltonian eigenstates?

The ''in/out'' states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$ Hamiltonian \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation} Where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and interacting part $H=H_0+V$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

  2. Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

Why would the "in/out'' states asymptotically approach the free Hamiltonian eigenstates?

The "in/out" states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the free Hamiltonian: \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle, \end{equation} where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and an interacting part $H=H_0+V,$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian, and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

  2. Why would far separated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time-evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around, the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

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Qmechanic
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The ''in/out'' states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$ Hamiltonian \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation} Where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and interacting part $H=H_0+V$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

    Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

  2. Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

2)Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

The ''in/out'' states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$ Hamiltonian \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation} Where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and interacting part $H=H_0+V$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

2)Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

The ''in/out'' states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$ Hamiltonian \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation} Where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and interacting part $H=H_0+V$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

  2. Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.

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Luke
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Why would the ``in/out'' states asymptotically approach the free Hamiltonian eigenstates?

The ''in/out'' states of the S-matrix in QFT are defined such that at late times they are approach superpositions of direct products of eigenstates of the $\textit{free}$ Hamiltonian \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{t\rightarrow \pm\infty}\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle=\int d\alpha\, e^{-iE_{\alpha}t}g(\alpha)|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle \end{equation} Where the Hamiltonian is split into a free and interacting part $H=H_0+V$ and the $|\psi_{\alpha}^{\pm}\rangle$ are eigenstates of the "full" Hamiltonian and $|\phi_{\alpha}\rangle$ is an eigenstate of the "solvable" Hamiltonian.

  1. Consider an electron far from any other particles. Is it an eigenstate of the full or the solvable Hamiltonian?

2)Why would far seperated particles not be direct products of eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian? The interaction term $V$ not only describes how two nearby particles time evolve, but also influences the one-particle states. For instance, regardless of whether other particles are around the $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi A_{\mu}$ term affects the charge of the electron.