Timeline for Proving Noether's theorem in classical mechanics
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 17, 2017 at 11:00 | comment | added | user35305 | I've updated my OP to reflect your suggested edits. | |
| Aug 16, 2017 at 20:57 | comment | added | user35305 | Thanks for your response. Ideally I would like to prove it in general, but I wasn't quite sure how to do it, so for now I've restricted to no explicit time dependence in the Lagrangian and $\delta t$ time-independent. Also, why is it natural to try $q'(t')=q(t)$ in the case of time translation? Is it because one defines that the coordinates change as $q'(t)=q(t+\delta t)$ under time translation, and then one can simply make a change of variables, $t\rightarrow t-\delta t$ such that $q'(t')=q(t)$? | |
| Aug 16, 2017 at 20:47 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added explanation
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| Aug 16, 2017 at 19:26 | history | answered | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |