Timeline for Calculating the probability to find two bosons at the same place
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 30, 2017 at 21:05 | vote | accept | Thomas Wening | ||
| Jul 30, 2017 at 13:24 | answer | added | ZeroTheHero | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 15:21 | vote | accept | Thomas Wening | ||
| Jul 27, 2017 at 22:58 | |||||
| Jul 26, 2017 at 15:16 | answer | added | Mikael Fremling | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 13:39 | comment | added | Thomas Wening | Ah, now I understand! But is there a way to show that this is generally less than 1? | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 13:37 | comment | added | Mikael Fremling | Exacly. And this will not be $=1$ in general. | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 13:24 | comment | added | Thomas Wening | So let's say I first integrate over $d^3x_2$. Then I am left with an integral over $d^3x_1$ and the same integrand, except with $x_2=x_1$, i.e. $\int_{\mathbb{R}^3}\overline{\Psi_B(x_1,x_1)}\Psi_B(x_1,x_1)d^3x_1$? | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 13:05 | comment | added | Mikael Fremling | First of all, when integrating over the delta function, one of the intregrals should vanish. Secondly, in the last line you should still have an integral left, since you will be integrating $|\psi_1(x_1)|^2|\psi_2(x_2)|^2$ this is not nececarilly one. | |
| Jul 26, 2017 at 12:59 | history | asked | Thomas Wening | CC BY-SA 3.0 |