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Post Closed as "Needs details or clarity" by sammy gerbil, Jon Custer, David Hammen, Kyle Kanos, Yashas
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Diracology
Diracology
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f=ma clarification Clarification of $F=ma$ in car collision

Person new to physics here. Consider 2Consider two cars, a$a$ and b$b$, which are currently at a resting state. The two cars are identical. Car a$a$ starts up first, and accelerates at 2m/s/s$2\, m/s^2$ until it reaches 100 m/s$100\, m/s$ and then promptly crashes into a wall. Car b$b$ then does the same except it only accelerates until 50 m/s$50\, m/s$ and then promptly crashes into a wall. It is intuitive that car a$a$ would cause more "damage" to the wall. However, using f=ma$F=ma$, the two car's forces are the same. whyWhy is this?

f=ma clarification

Person new to physics here. Consider 2 cars, a and b, which are currently at a resting state. The two cars are identical. Car a starts up first, and accelerates at 2m/s/s until it reaches 100 m/s and then promptly crashes into a wall. Car b then does the same except it only accelerates until 50 m/s and then promptly crashes into a wall. It is intuitive that car a would cause more "damage" to the wall. However, using f=ma, the two car's forces are the same. why is this?

Clarification of $F=ma$ in car collision

Consider two cars, $a$ and $b$, which are currently at a resting state. The two cars are identical. Car $a$ starts up first, and accelerates at $2\, m/s^2$ until it reaches $100\, m/s$ and then promptly crashes into a wall. Car $b$ then does the same except it only accelerates until $50\, m/s$ and then promptly crashes into a wall. It is intuitive that car $a$ would cause more "damage" to the wall. However, using $F=ma$, the two car's forces are the same. Why is this?

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Serendipitous Epiphany
Serendipitous Epiphany
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f=ma clarification

Person new to physics here. Consider 2 cars, a and b, which are currently at a resting state. The two cars are identical. Car a starts up first, and accelerates at 2m/s/s until it reaches 100 m/s and then promptly crashes into a wall. Car b then does the same except it only accelerates until 50 m/s and then promptly crashes into a wall. It is intuitive that car a would cause more "damage" to the wall. However, using f=ma, the two car's forces are the same. why is this?