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Aug 20, 2013 at 0:49 comment added Selene Routley @BielsNohr I think your comment to Christoph describes a very wise approach. I find many things in physics likewise: deductions are made with no proof that would withstand a mathematician's scrutiny. Often a "physically reasonable postulate" is implicitly being made: here we make an implicit assumption that it is physically reasonable to restrict our theory to observables whose eigenfunctions have inner products well behaved in the way you describe. I wish more authors were a bit more forthright about their assumptions - there's nothing wrong with making them: it is physics, after all.
Oct 2, 2012 at 18:06 comment added Qmechanic The title question(v1) concerns just the eigenvalue spectrum (= point spectrum), not the full spectrum.
Aug 13, 2012 at 17:48 comment added jjcale @Qmechanics: Question (v1) is also non-trivial on standard Hilbert spaces, since not every value of the spectrum is an eigenvalue. So one has to prove that isolated points of the spectrum are indeed eigenvalues.
Aug 12, 2012 at 19:58 comment added Qmechanic Comment to the answer(v1): Most mathematical books on functional analysis would just treat (bounded and unbounded) operators as living on a (standard) Hilbert space (where the inner product exists by definition). OP's title question(v1) only becomes non-trivial if one goes beyond the framework of standard Hilbert spaces, e.g. in the context of rigged Hilbert spaces.
Aug 12, 2012 at 9:31 comment added BielsNohr @Christoph also captured this in his post, and I would like to acknowledge that. All of these answers have helped me realize that the question I was asking does not have a simple answer like the author of the textbook I was reading implied; additionally, I think a full comprehension will require a few more years of study in math on my part. Thanks all.
Aug 12, 2012 at 9:25 vote accept BielsNohr
Aug 10, 2012 at 18:57 history answered jjcale CC BY-SA 3.0