Timeline for Relation and difference between work and kinetic energy
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 6, 2017 at 17:52 | vote | accept | Iram Haque | ||
| Jun 6, 2017 at 15:39 | comment | added | EigenFunction | Yes, although this also assumes there is no change in the potential energy of the object. | |
| Jun 6, 2017 at 15:38 | vote | accept | Iram Haque | ||
| Jun 6, 2017 at 17:52 | |||||
| Jun 6, 2017 at 15:27 | comment | added | Iram Haque | So not considering friction, if you've don a certain amount of work on a object, that amount of work is equal to the kinetic energy, correct? | |
| Jun 6, 2017 at 15:24 | history | answered | EigenFunction | CC BY-SA 3.0 |