Timeline for Why are the two versions of the 1st law of thermodynamics equivalent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 4, 2017 at 20:12 | comment | added | valerio | Just want to point out that not all thermodynamic systems are PVT systems. | |
| Jun 4, 2017 at 19:27 | answer | added | Chet Miller | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 4, 2017 at 17:32 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/37904/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/39568/2451 and links therein. | |
| Jun 4, 2017 at 17:31 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 8 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
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| Jun 4, 2017 at 16:13 | comment | added | Alexey Sokolik | If the system and surroundings are separated by a piston of the mass $m$ and area $S$ then its acceleration $a$ obeys the Netwon's third law $ma=(P-P_\mathrm{ext})S$. If the piston is weightless then $P=P_\mathrm{ext}$, otherwise $P\neq P_\mathrm{ext}$, but you need to take into account change of the piston kinetic energy in the energy balance equations. | |
| Jun 4, 2017 at 14:52 | answer | added | Jordan He | timeline score: -1 | |
| Jun 4, 2017 at 14:38 | history | edited | John Rennie | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Typo
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| Jun 4, 2017 at 14:33 | history | asked | math_lover | CC BY-SA 3.0 |