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May 25, 2017 at 14:48 vote accept Spine Feast
May 25, 2017 at 14:48 comment added Spine Feast Apparently that's the problem, found a very similar question here physics.stackexchange.com/q/192643
May 25, 2017 at 14:24 comment added astronautgravity Are you sure you're exactly keeping the integration regions the same when you're imposing the cutoff? The first is spherically symmetric in 4D Euclidean space whereas the second is spherically symmetric in 3D Euclidean space.
May 25, 2017 at 14:17 comment added Spine Feast In your case the integral of the difference exists and equals zero, since both integrals exist on their own. I tried with this problem and the integral of the difference exists, but is a finite value, see my edit.
May 25, 2017 at 12:26 history answered astronautgravity CC BY-SA 3.0