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Mar 17, 2018 at 20:25 vote accept Phillip
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Jul 11, 2017 at 11:02 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/884729635224694784
Mar 20, 2017 at 2:57 comment added WillO @ACuriousMind has given you the answer, but in case the helps to clarify it: The components of angular momentum in the $x$ and $y$ directions do not commute, so they cannot both be well-defined at the same moment. Therefore they certainly cannot both be zero.
Feb 8, 2017 at 14:45 comment added Ruslan @ZeroTheHero you can. It's just the equation in cylindrical coordinates after choosing $\psi(z)=\operatorname{const}.$ and removing the $\rho$-dependent factor.
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:56 answer added Amara timeline score: 2
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:34 comment added ZeroTheHero Moreover, if you Schrödinger equation only contains $\varphi$, you can't use momentum $L^2$. To put it differently, $L^2$ is the basically the Laplacian in spherical coordinates, but your functions $e^{im\varphi}$ are not eigenfunctions of the Laplacian.
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:28 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 21 characters in body; edited tags
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:28 comment added Phillip I am relatively new to this field of physics, so i would prefer if you forgave me for any mistakes that i made regarding the quantum mechanical formalism.
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:14 comment added ACuriousMind "However, both values can only be the same if the components in the x and y direction are both equal to zero" - why? (Don't argue classically, show it in quantum mechanics!)
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:09 review First posts
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:22
Feb 8, 2017 at 13:09 history asked Phillip CC BY-SA 3.0