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May 19, 2020 at 0:16 vote accept Arkya
May 19, 2020 at 0:15 comment added Arkya Thanks. After revisiting this question, I realize I had misunderstood what was being said in the quoted excerpt.
May 17, 2020 at 23:19 answer added user87745 timeline score: 2
May 17, 2020 at 23:11 comment added user87745 If you're not already assuming that the operators are defined on the same domain, vanishing commutator won't help you much because the commutator would only be defined on some type of an intersection of the domains and its vanishing nature would only be applicable in that intersection. So, I don't see how a vanishing commutator can help us claim that the operators share the same domain.
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Aug 1, 2019 at 19:47 history edited Qmechanic
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Aug 1, 2019 at 19:02 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 9, 2017 at 10:04 answer added Mahathi Vempati timeline score: 2
Feb 4, 2017 at 14:31 comment added Arkya Yes, but are we assuming here that the operators are defined on the same domain space? They should, I guess..
Feb 4, 2017 at 14:29 comment added ACuriousMind Assuming the observables are defined on the same space, why would you need commutativity to say that their eigenkets span the same space? You can just apply the spectral theorem to each separately, no?
Feb 4, 2017 at 14:23 history asked Arkya CC BY-SA 3.0