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Same math can be applied to effectiveness of the force. Only thing is that v is the velocity component in the direction of the force. So, for slowing down, it will be 0, or $\gamma \approx 1$

Same math can be applied to effectiveness of the force. Only thing is that v is the velocity (only positive) component in the direction of the force. So, for slowing down, it will be 0, or $\gamma \approx 1$

$$ F1 = \gamma F = \frac{F}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}} $$

$$ F = \gamma F1 = \frac{F1}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}} $$

We all know that though it is not possible to accelerate the particle further, but it is no big deal to slow it down. Slowing down an infinite mass/momentum would not be that easy. Infinite mass reasoning must apply both ways - in speeding up as well as in slowing down. Which it does not seem to apply to slowing down.

I am even proposing below experiment to prove/disprove the concept. If someone is aware of such an experiment being done, please share the results.

We all know that though it is not possible to accelerate the particle further, but it is no big deal to slow it down. Slowing down an infinite mass/momentum would not be that easy. Infinite mass reasoning must apply both ways - in speeding up as well as in slowing down. Has it been experimentally shown that it also applies to slowing down at limits close to $c$?

I am proposing below experiment to prove/disprove the concept. If someone is aware of such an experiment being done, please share the results.