Timeline for Is the distinction between covariant and contravariant objects purely for the convenience of mathematical manipulation?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 16, 2017 at 19:35 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/821078538124201984 | ||
| Jan 16, 2017 at 19:34 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Jan 16, 2017 at 19:32 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/105347/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/119126/2451 and links therein. | |
| Jan 16, 2017 at 18:07 | history | edited | ACuriousMind♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
corrected spelling and improved grammar
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| Jan 16, 2017 at 18:03 | answer | added | ACuriousMind♦ | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jan 16, 2017 at 17:34 | history | edited | SRS |
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| Jan 16, 2017 at 17:28 | comment | added | user140606 | solely for mathematical luxury Rhetorical question only: Is there not a connection from covariant indices to forms, even if only for historical reasons, physicspages.com/2011/04/25/tensors-one-forms | |
| Jan 16, 2017 at 17:14 | history | asked | SRS | CC BY-SA 3.0 |