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Is the distinction between covaraintcovariant and contravariant objects purely for the convenience of mathematical manipulation?

Two kinds of indices, covariant and contravariant, are introduced in special relativity. This is, as far as I understand, is solely for mathematical luxury, i.e., write expressions in a concise, self-explanatory notation. For example, instead of writing the metric as $(\Delta s)^2=c^2(\Delta t)^2-(\Delta \textbf{r})^2$ one can write $x^\mu x_\mu$ which is not only a compact notation but also tells us that this expression is Lorentz invariant. But both $x_\mu$ and $x^\mu$, represent same objects: a set of four co-ordinates $(ct,x,y,z)$.

In the case of SU(N) grouprepresentations of $\mathrm{SU}(N)$, there too, are appear objects such as $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ which transform differently but keep $\psi_i\psi^i$ invariant. But we see that two different kind of objects exist in nature: quarks and anti-quarks which belong to the representations $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ respectively.

Does it mean in the latter case the distinction between covariant $\psi_i$ and contravarinatcontravariant $\psi^i$ areis more fundamental than in the former case?

Is the distinction between covaraint and contravariant objects purely for the convenience of mathematical manipulation?

Two kinds of indices, covariant and contravariant, are introduced in special relativity. This is as far as I understand, is solely for mathematical luxury i.e., write expressions in a concise, self-explanatory notation. For example, instead of writing the metric as $(\Delta s)^2=c^2(\Delta t)^2-(\Delta \textbf{r})^2$ one can write $x^\mu x_\mu$ which is not only a compact notation but also tells us that this expression is Lorentz invariant. But both $x_\mu$ and $x^\mu$, represent same objects: a set of four co-ordinates $(ct,x,y,z)$.

In case of SU(N) group, there too, are objects such as $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ which transform differently but keep $\psi_i\psi^i$ invariant. But we see that two different kind of objects exist in nature: quarks and anti-quarks which belong to the representations $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ respectively.

Does it mean in the latter case the distinction between covariant $\psi_i$ and contravarinat $\psi^i$ are more fundamental than the former case?

Is the distinction between covariant and contravariant objects purely for the convenience of mathematical manipulation?

Two kinds of indices, covariant and contravariant, are introduced in special relativity. This, as far as I understand, is solely for mathematical luxury, i.e. write expressions in a concise, self-explanatory notation. For example, instead of writing the metric as $(\Delta s)^2=c^2(\Delta t)^2-(\Delta \textbf{r})^2$ one can write $x^\mu x_\mu$ which is not only a compact notation but also tells us that this expression is Lorentz invariant. But both $x_\mu$ and $x^\mu$, represent same objects: a set of four co-ordinates $(ct,x,y,z)$.

In the case of representations of $\mathrm{SU}(N)$, there too appear objects such as $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ which transform differently but keep $\psi_i\psi^i$ invariant. But we see that two different kind of objects exist in nature: quarks and anti-quarks which belong to the representations $\psi^i$ and $\psi_i$ respectively.

Does it mean in the latter case the distinction between covariant $\psi_i$ and contravariant $\psi^i$ is more fundamental than in the former case?

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